Al's CCENT Practice Test #2

Revised June 27, 2018

(If you find any errors, let me know!)

1. Which command displays a router's IP routing table?

  1. show ip routing-table
  2. show ip protocols
  3. show route
  4. show ip route

2. A router's IOS image is typically stored where?

  1. RAM
  2. Flash
  3. NV-RAM
  4. In a ZIP file on a floppy disk

3. Routes that are manually configured are referred to as?

  1. Dynamic
  2. Distance-vector
  3. Static
  4. Link-state

4. Which of the following might a Layer-2 switch do with a frame?

  1. Forward
  2. Filter
  3. Flood
  4. Broadcast
  5. All of the above.

5. Which command displays the configuration file stored in NVRAM?

  1. show running-config
  2. show startup-config
  3. show backup-config
  4. show nvram

6. Which command administratively enables a router interface?

  1. shutdown
  2. no shutdown
  3. shutup
  4. enable

7. The IP address 138.29.54.37 falls into which address class?

  1. Class A
  2. Class B
  3. Class C
  4. Class D
  5. Class E

8. The process of adding headers as PDUs proceed down the protocol stack is referred to as?

  1. Encapsulation
  2. Windowing
  3. Decapsulation
  4. Segmentation and Re-assembly (SAR)

9. When using the Cisco IOS CLI, what hot-key sequence completes the current command keyword?

  1. <CTRL> C
  2. <CTRL><SHIFT><6> <X>
  3. Tab
  4. Spacebar

10. A router's startup configuration file is stored where?

  1. NetBIOS
  2. ROM
  3. RAM
  4. NVRAM

11. An Ethernet switch functions at which OSI layer?

  1. Physical
  2. Spiritual
  3. Datalink
  4. Network

12. Multicast IP addresses belong to which address class?

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D

13. What is the name of Layer 4 of the OSI model?

  1. Session
  2. Physical
  3. Transport
  4. Application

14. If a router with no startup configuration is reloaded, it goes into which mode?

  1. User
  2. Privileged
  3. Setup
  4. ROMMON

15. A router's running configuration exists where?

  1. NVRAM
  2. Flash
  3. ROM
  4. RAM

16. What is the directed broadcast address for the 10.20.30.48/29 subnet?

  1. 10.20.30.255
  2. 10.20.30.55
  3. 10.255.255.255
  4. 255.255.255.255

17. Which command displays the loading on a router interface?

  1. show ip interface loading
  2. show interface
  3. show ip loading
  4. show loading

18. Which command sequence configures IP RIPv1 on an Ethernet 1 interface having an IP address of 192.168.200.41?

  1. Router1(config)#interface ethernet1
    Router1(config-if)#router rip
  2. Router1(config)#interface ethernet1
    Router1(config-if)#activate rip
  3. Router1(config)#router rip
    Router1(config-router)#network ethernet1
  4. Router1(config)#router rip
    Router1(config-router)#network 192.168.200.0

19. Which subnet mask will divide a class C network into at least four subnets, with each subnet supporting at least fifty hosts?

  1. /24
  2. /26
  3. /28
  4. /30

20. For which type of interface does the DCE normally do the clocking?

  1. Synchronous serial
  2. Asynchronous serial
  3. 10 Gig Ethernet
  4. Any interface with a "bandwidth" statement configured.

21. What type of routing protocols automatically adjust to changes in topology?

  1. Adaptive
  2. Static
  3. Dynamic
  4. Optimal

22. What is the purpose of the "bandwidth" interface command?

  1. To set the data rate for the interface.
  2. To set the clock rate for the DTE.
  3. To control the amount of bandwidth the ASICs can consume.
  4. To affect routing protocols that use bandwidth as a metric, and to scale the “loading” calculation.

23. What is the purpose of CDP?

  1. To reveal the existence of non-Cisco equipment.
  2. To increase security by consuming excess bandwidth on frame relay circuits.
  3. To discover directly-attached Cisco devices.
  4. To enhance router security by hiding information.

24. Sending copies of a frame out on all interfaces other than that on which a frame is received is referred to as?

  1. Broadcasting
  2. Flooding
  3. Multicasting
  4. Bailing
  5. Unicasting
  6. Swimming

25. What is the function of "Bit 6" of the configuration register?

  1. It controls the console port speed.
  2. It controls the gravitational constant of the universe.
  3. It controls whence IOS loads.
  4. It controls whether or not the startup config is used.
  5. There is no such thing as "Bit 6".

26. Which of the following is an RFC-1918 private IP address?

  1. 127.0.0.1
  2. 162.198.16.203
  3. 172.19.40.54
  4. 225.97.201.254

27. Which of the following do HDLC and PPP have in common?

  1. They both allow only fixed-length frames.
  2. They both have headers containing destination and source MAC addresses.
  3. They both specify a layer-two PDU.
  4. They both support CHAP authentication.
  5. They both support 802.2 SNAP encapsulation.

28. Which layer of the TCP/IP model is equivalent to layer three of the OSI model?

  1. Data-Link
  2. Session
  3. Network
  4. Internet

29. When a Cisco device is powered up, what's the first thing that happens?

  1. ROMMON enters setup mode.
  2. The bootstrap loader locates IOS.
  3. The POST executes.
  4. The config file is copied from NVRAM to RAM.

30. What is the administrative distance for RIPv2?

  1. 1
  2. 90
  3. 110
  4. 120
  5. 170
  6. It is impossible to calculate this from the information given.

31. Which four of the following are characteristics of an enterprise-class layer-two Ethernet switch?

  1. It can support multiple VLANs.
  2. It can support trunking.
  3. It can support BGP.
  4. It can support STP.
  5. It can support full-duplex.

32. What does a layer-two switch use to build and maintain its switching table?

  1. The Transport layer source address in the incoming frames.
  2. The Internet layer source address in the incoming frames.
  3. The Data-Link layer source address in the incoming frames
  4. The Internet layer destination address in the incoming frames.
  5. The "protocol" field in the IP header.

33. In the context of computer networking, what is the definition of "ATM"?

  1. Automated Teller Machine
  2. Apollo Telescope Mount
  3. Asynchronous Transfer Mode
  4. Adobe Type Manager

34. What is the purpose of a subnet mask?

  1. To specify which bits of an address in an ACL can be ignored.
  2. To tell the router where to look for IOS after POST successfully completes.
  3. To tell routers and hosts which bits are network info and which bits are host info.
  4. To complicate the lives of CCNA candidates!

35. Which of the following are advertised by CDP?

  1. Hostname
  2. Layer-3 addressing
  3. IOS version
  4. Advertising interface
  5. Capabilities
  6. All of the the above.

36. Where might a router find a "boot system" command during startup?

  1. RAM
  2. ROM
  3. Flash
  4. NVRAM
  5. There is no such thing as a "boot system" command.

37. What would the "show interface" command display regarding an Ethernet0 interface that has been manually shut down?

  1. Ethernet0 is down, line protocol is down
  2. Ethernet0 is up, line protocol is down
  3. Ethernet0 is administratively down, line protocol is down
  4. Ethernet0 is up, line protocol is up
  5. None of the above.

38. What is the function of IP ARP?

  1. To map a Layer 2 to a Layer 3 address.
  2. To map a Layer 3 to a Layer 2 address.
  3. To map a host name to a Layer 2 address.
  4. To map a host name to a Layer 3 address.
  5. None of the above.

39. When the target host is outside the local subnet, a host sets the destination address of the frame header to:

  1. The MAC address of the target host.
  2. The IP address of the target host.
  3. The MAC address of the sending host's default gateway.
  4. The IP address of the sending host's default gateway.
  5. It is impossible to determine this from the information available.

40. Which "remote control" device management utility is the most secure?

  1. Telnet
  2. HTTP
  3. SSH
  4. VPN

41. Which items might be contained in an IP routing table entry?

  1. Time since the entry was refreshed.
  2. Metric to the destination.
  3. How the route was learned.
  4. Administrative distance.
  5. Number of hosts present on the destination route.

42. Given the host address and mask 192.168.5.237/27, on which subnet is the host?

  1. 192.168.5.0
  2. 192.168.5.224
  3. 192.168.5.192
  4. 192.168.5.240
  5. 255.255.255.224

43. Which subnet mask is equivalent to 255.255.192.0?

  1. /10
  2. /14
  3. /18
  4. /22
  5. /26

44. Which of the following are true regarding DHCP and the SDM?

  1. Using the SDM, a Cisco router can be configured as a DHCP server.
  2. Using the SDM, a Cisco router can be configured as a DHCP client.
  3. Using the SDM, a Cisco router can be configured as both a DHCP client and DHCP server.
  4. A Cisco router cannot be configured for DHCP via SDM, so the CLI must be used.

45. Which of the following commands displays both inbound and outbound Telnet sessions?

  1. show outbound
  2. show sessions
  3. show telnet
  4. show users

46. Which commands terminates an outbound Telnet session?

  1. Router>clear line 2
  2. Router>disconnect line 2
  3. Router#clear line 2
  4. Router#disconnect line 2
  5. Router(config)#clear line 2

47. Which layer of the OSI model is reponsible for media access control?

  1. Layer 1
  2. Layer 2
  3. Layer 3
  4. Layer 4
  5. Layer 8

48. The process of removing the Layer-2 header and trailer surrounding a packet is referred to as:

  1. Unwrapping
  2. Metamorphosis
  3. De-encapsulation
  4. Liberation
  5. Burlesque

49. Which of the following is a reliable, connection-oriented transport layer protocol?

  1. IP
  2. TCP
  3. UDP
  4. DHCP
  5. DNS

50. What enables multiplexing of multiple applications over a common network layer?

  1. Port number
  2. Protocol number
  3. Ethertype
  4. FCS

ANSWERS 

 1. D        11. C        21. C        31. ABDE     41. ABCD
 2. B        12. D        22. D        32. C        42. B
 3. C        13. C        23. C        33. C        43. C
 4. ABC      14. C        24. B        34. C        44. C
 5. B        15. D        25. D        35. F        45. D
 6. B        16. B        26. C        36. D        46. BD
 7. B        17. B        27. C        37. C        47. B
 8. A        18. D        28. D        38. B        48. C
 9. C        19. B        29. C        39. C        49. B
10. D        20. A        30. D        40. C        50. A

NOTES
4. "Broadcast" is a destination address type (as are unicast and multicast), not an action.
8. A "PDU" is a "Protocol Data Unit".
9. "CLI" is the "Command Line Interface".
12. Class D addresses span the range from 224 to 239 in the first octet.
16. With a /29 mask, the subnets increment by eight, so the next subnet is the "56" subnet. Thus, the broadcast address for the "48" subnet is "10.20.30.55". The address "10.255.255.255" is the broadcast address for the entire network.
19. Four subnets requires at least two subnet bits, and fifty hosts per subnet requires at least six nost bits. With only eight bits to utilize (due to the class C default mask of /24), the required mask is /26.
27. HDLC and PPP are specifications for WAN frames.
28. "Network" is OSI jargon, the question asked about the TCP/IP model.
30. The admin distance for both RIPv1 and RIPv2 is 120.
42. With a /27 mask, the subnets increment by 32, thus the host is on the "224" subnet.
45. The "show sessions" command only displays outbound sessions.
46. The privileged mode "clear" command terminates an inbound Telnet session.

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